A note on smooth maps between smooth structures

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I’m still trying to catch up with the uni courses that I completely neglected during the quarantine days, I’m focusing on differential geometry right now which is a subject I always found hard to ‘get’, so many details and confusing notation!

Here is something very elementary that has puzzled me for some days coming from a very popular exercise. Suppose we have two charts defined on the whole \mathbb R given by the identity and the cubing map \varphi : x \mapsto x^3, these can be used to define two atlases {\cal A}_1, {\cal A}_2 which in turn define maximal atlases {\cal A}_1^{\rm max}, {\cal A}_2^{\rm max} or smooth structures. The exercise usually asks to prove that the identity {\rm Id} : (\mathbb R, {\cal A}_1^{\rm max}) \to (\mathbb R, {\cal A}_2^{\rm max}) is not a diffeomorphism (a \cal C^\infty map whose inverse is also \cal C^\infty) whereas the cubing map itself is.

Recall that a \cal C^\infty map F : M \to N between smooth manifolds needs, for every point x \in M that there exist charts (U, \alpha), (V, \beta) of M, N respectively such that:

  • F(U) \subseteq V
  • The composition \beta \circ F \circ \alpha^{-1} is infinitely differentiable (which makes sense since it’s a map between open sets of Euclidean space)

Now, while the spirit of this example is very clear to me, the usual solutions found online and in class were confusing me a bit: the idea is that taking the charts we started from (\mathbb R, \varphi), (\mathbb R, {\rm Id})  we get that {\rm Id} \circ {\rm Id} \circ \varphi^{-1} = \varphi^{-1} should be a infinitely differentiable which is false, its derivative is discontinuous at 0!
However why are we allowed to use these particular charts? We have two whole maximal atlases filled with charts around 0, the above reasoning doesn’t seem to exclude the possibility of finding a pair that works.

Now I think I get it:

Proposition. Let F : (M, {\cal A}) \to (N, {\cal B}) be a map between differentiable manifolds with structure given by atlases {\cal A} = \{(U_\alpha, \varphi_\alpha)\} and {\cal B} = \{(V_\beta, \psi_\beta)\}. Then F is \cal C^\infty iff \psi_\beta \circ F \circ \phi_\alpha^{-1} is infinitely differentiable for all \alpha, \beta with F(U_\alpha) \cap V_\beta \neq \emptyset

Proof. If the last statement holds then F satisfies the definition of \cal C^\infty map since \{U_\alpha\} is a covering of M.
Conversely suppose that F is a \cal C^\infty map, then for each x \in M we can find (\tilde U, \tilde \varphi), x \in \tilde U and (\tilde V, \tilde \psi), F(\tilde U) \subseteq \tilde V charts in the atlases \cal A, B such that \tilde \psi \circ F \circ \tilde \varphi^{-1} is infinitely differentiable. Now, the key point is that both of these charts must be compatible with all the other charts in their respective atlases, in particular there will be some (U_\alpha, \varphi_\alpha) with x \in U_\alpha and (V_\beta, \psi_\beta) with F(x) \in V_\beta such that all the maps \tilde\varphi \circ \varphi_\alpha^{-1}, \varphi_\alpha \circ \tilde\varphi^{-1}, \tilde\psi \circ \psi_\beta^{-1}, \psi_\beta \circ \tilde\psi^{-1} are infinitely differentiable. Finally it’s just a matter of composing the right functions (recalling that the composition of infinitely differentiable maps is again infinitely differentiable):

(\psi_\beta \circ \tilde\psi^{-1}) \circ (\tilde \psi \circ F \circ \tilde \varphi^{-1}) \circ (\tilde \varphi \circ \varphi_\alpha^{-1}) = \psi_\beta \circ F \circ \varphi_\alpha^{-1}

and we are done. □

As I said, this is very elementary and was probably clear to everyone but me, but it feels good to write it out explicitly.

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